Thursday, 5 January 2012

Virgin Birth & Immanuel Theory Fallacy !!!

     Virgin Birth & Immanuel Theory  Debunked:-       
As you all know that the foundation of Christianity stands on two pillars i.e Virgin Birth Of Jesus Christ and other being Resurrection of him.
  If we systematically & with precision end up proving even one of the above pillars as a lie or lets say a fraud ,rests assured, Christianity won’t even be able to stand long .As you know already, no person can stand on one leg for longer time sooner or later he have to sit down, and if he wants to stand for longer time then he needs to make use of a clutcher .And we don’t need a limping, crawling & physically challenged religion that can’t stand on his own and who needs a support to survive.  Lets investigate one such pillar of Christianity:-         
Probably the most famous of these prophecies that all Christians and even Muslims believe and respect is the prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin woman. The gospels of Matthew (1:18-25) and Luke (1:26-35) both claim that Jesus was born of a virgin, but only Matthew (1:23) appeals to the Hebrew scriptures as an explanation for why this should be the case. The verse appealed to is Isaiah 7:14, which reads: "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call his name Immanuel."
     There are a number of difficulties with this passage. As many have noted, the English word used is "virgin" for this verse,but the actual Hebrew word is "almah," which  more accurately means only "young woman." The Hebrew word "bethulah" means "virgin." In the book of Isaiah, "bethulah" appears four times (23:12, 37:22, 47:1, 62:5), so its author was aware of the word. In the New American Standard translation of the Bible, all other appearances of "almah" are translated simply as "girl," "maid," or "maiden" (viz: Genesis 24:43, Exodus 2:8, Psalms 68:25, Proverbs 30:19,Song of Solomon 1:3, 6:8). Thus the claimed fulfillment adds a biologically impossible condition which is not even present in the original prophecy.[2]   
In Greek Septuagint, the word used is parthenos  carries a basic meaning of 'girl', hence it denotes 'virgin' only by implication. And in fact this word could also be used to refer to non-virgin women who weren't married. Homer so uses it, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek would know of this word's versatile and indefinite meaning.
So the Jewish translators need not have had virginity in mind, but youth. Still, this word carried a strong connotation of virginity, and there were Greek words that didn't carry that connotation (like neanis).
          Besides all that, the argument works against Christian missioneries just as forcefully:” for if the choice of parthenos  over neanis by the Greek translator implies virginity, then the choice of almah over bethulah by the original author implies non virginity”. 
Bible defenders may argue saying “Isaiah used the word almah that can be translated as 'young woman' as a synonym for 'virgin.' In fact, they may say, "there is no instance in the Hebrew Sacred Writings (our Old Testament) where almah means a young woman who is not a virgin. That  Old Testament writers understood that and chose their words accordingly”. 
The   answer to that Argument is that  a man might in the future take as a bride someone who is now a virgin. On that reading, "a virgin will conceive" in the sense that someone who is now a virgin, at the time Isaiah spoke, would at some point marry and have a child.

  Any way even if we believe  that “Almah” means a “virgin “ so what? Don’t virgins give birth to children? If a virgin marries and on her wedding night both Husband and Bride do sexual hanky panky  and latter become pregnant what is so supernatural about this whole issue? Is’nt same thing happening in 21th centuary also?
         Moreover, the fact that the Hebrews saw a need to coin a word more definitely meaning “bethulah”(Virgin) implies that almah did not definitely mean virgin.
The Jewish Publication Society and Revised Standard Version translations render Isaiah 7:14 as "the young woman shall conceive."
    When the RSV came out in 1952, Christian Fundamentalists held public RSV burnings because of their view that the mother of Jesus conceived miraculously, without cohabitation with a man. The Jehovah Witnesses' New World Translation renders Isaiah 7:14 as:
"the maiden herself will actually become pregnant,"

while 
The James Moffatt Translation renders it:-

"There is a young woman with child, who shall bear a son and call his name 'Immanuel' . . . "
The New Strong's Guide to Bible Words shows that the word almah can mean "a lass" or "young woman".
The Enhanced Strong's Lexicon presents the word as meaning a "virgin or young woman of marriageable age, a maid or newly married".
The Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains: Hebrew (Old Testament) shows the proper rendering of almah to be "a young woman, i.e., sexually mature female of marriageable age, which may or may not be sexually active".

Now after the clarification of the controversy surrounding Virgin birth which is just a bluff and myth, even if for one moment we assume that Prophet Isaiah actually meant a Virgin –Birth still there is a big shocker waiting .  Lets see how , for proof, I will do what few Christian or Messianic leaders do, we will present the actual context of the verse and highlight crucial areas. This will prove that the use of Isaiah 7:14 as a Messianic passage is a prime example of distortion and context shredding of Scripture. We will even use the King James Version,

7:1 And it came to pass in the days of Ahaz the son of Jotham, the son of Uzziah, king of Judah, that Rezin the king of Syria, and Pekah the son of Remaliah, king of Israel, went up toward Jerusalem to war against it, but could not prevail against it.
2 And it was told the house of David (king Ahaz), saying, Syria is confederate with Ephraim. And his heart was moved, and the heart of his people, as the trees of the wood are moved with the wind. (Ahaz and the people of Judah were terrified of the defeat they expected from the united efforts of Syria and the northern Kingdom, Israel)
3 Then said the LORD unto Isaiah, Go forth now to meet Ahaz, (Isaiah was sent to talk to Ahaz) thou, and Shearjashub thy son, at the end of the conduit of the upper pool in the highway of the fuller's field;
And say unto him, Take heed, and be quiet; fear not, (Isaiah sent to calm the fears of the king of Judah) neither be fainthearted for the two tails of these smoking firebrands, for the fierce anger of Rezin with Syria, and of the son of Remaliah.
5 Because Syria, Ephraim, and the son of Remaliah, have taken evil counsel against thee, saying,
6 Let us go up against Judah, and vex it, and let us make a breach therein for us, and set a king in the midst of it, even the son of Tabeal:
7 Thus saith the Lord GOD, It shall not stand, neither shall it come to pass (the defeat of Judah by Rezin of Syria and Pekah of the northern Kingdom of Israel).
8 For the head of Syria is Damascus, and the head of Damascus is Rezin; and within threescore and five years (NOTE! a clear time frame was given from THAT time on) shall Ephraim be broken, that it be not a people.
9 And the head of Ephraim is Samaria, and the head of Samaria is Remaliah's son. If ye will not believe, surely ye shall not be established.
10 Moreover the LORD spake again unto Ahaz, saying,
11 Ask thee a sign of the LORD thy God; (Ahaz is asked to ask for a sign) ask it either in the depth, or in the height above.
12 But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD.
13 And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; (Ahaz is of the house of David) Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also?
14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you (Ahaz) a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
(The birth -- or the name -- was to be a sign to Ahaz. This couldn't possibly be the birth of “Jesuschrist”, since it was hundreds of years later, long after Ahaz had died Jesus was born! And a "sign" to a dead man is useless!)
5 Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good.
16 For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings. (Obviously, no such thing happened in Jesus’s childhood, is ever found or recorded ).
Now lets see how this prophecy was fulfilled by God in chapter 8:-

8:3 And I went unto the prophetess; and she conceived, and bare a son. Then said the LORD to me, Call his name “Mahershalalhashbaz”. (THIS IS THE FULFILLMENT OF 7:14!)
4 For before the child shall have knowledge to cry, My father, and my mother, the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria shall be taken away before the king of Assyria. (Repeat of verse 7:16, further proving that the birth of Isaiah's son was actually & truly the fulfillment of Is. 7:14!)
The use of this term “Immanuel” in 7:14 was part of the sign which was "God with us" during the time to soon to come when Judah was to feel threatened from Assyria. Here the name is applied to Judah to insure that divine protection will be extended to it, which of course, it was at that time.
You see people, how stupid Christian fool around.
In fact, not a single prophecy was ever fulfilled by Jesus and Christians have just managed to manipulate Hebrew scriptures by infesting and adding there own invented teachings and doctrines into it.
   They just read any prophecy in isolation, take its meaning out of context without reading whole chapters not only that  but also deliberately and forcibly apply prophecies out of context.
Another problem is that nowhere in the New Testament does Mary, Jesus' mother, refer to him as "Immanuel." Thus we have no evidence that one of the conditions of the prophecy was ever fulfilled.

 Some missionaries argue that in an ancient translation of the Bible
called the "Septuagint," 70 great rabbis translated the word "almah”
in Isaiah 7:14, as "Parthenos" and that this Greek word means a
virgin. This claim is false for several reasons: 1) The 70 rabbis did
not translate the book of Isaiah, only the "Pentateuch," the five
books of Moses. 2) In Genesis 34:2-3 the
word "Parthenos" is used in reference to a Non-Virgin, a young woman
who had been raped i.e Dina.



Some Christians claim that the above verse has dual meaning and that it is applying to Jesus !



The reason Christians indulge in this  is due to the fact that there is no mention of virgin birth. Given the opportunity they can even claim that Prophecy has not double but triple or may be Octagonal meaning.
What is the proof that God means double meaning? After all if their be such a thing ,surely YHWH would definitely give a clear cut indication  to that , but since there is no such  thing so Christians ended up claiming multiple meaning. Just like for past 2000 years they are searching real meaning  of 666 mark of beast in Computer Chips, to coalition Of Nations to A devil born with that mark from the womb of Women etc, resulting in  endless speculation for 2000 years and profitable business to HOLLYWOOD. Isaiah’s wife was not virgin and Isaiah doen’t  mentions that  either cause Ha- Almah means Young Women not Virgin

Fullfillment of Prophecy of NT is following which predecessor? Isaiah only right, so If not found in OT then how can it be a fulfillment of word of God? On the contrary, it’s the fulfillment of Word of the Devil.That is exactly my point If not found in Isaiah then how the hell can some one claim that it is found in Isaiah?  Its like Im paying the price of Pizza that I did not even ordered, is’t that funny? I want to ask you if God of OT did not spoke that then such a proclaimed prophecy is indeed false as, for its fulfillment it seeks the sanction of OT ,Right? So if OT in its original context  it means Young women than Virgin birth is fallacy.Persian God like Mithras, Roman Demi God Herculeus all can easily claim the sanction found in Isaiah right? 

It nowhere make any sense as  YHWH never said that it means double meaning , since no such  enigmatic & mysterious wordings are mentioned or is ever founded by YHWH neither he ever said  means double or Triple meanings. Otherwise he would in his mercy would reveal that too.




    Now, two important questions comes in the mind of the readers :
1. Why were earlier Christians so obsessed with the Virgin Birth of Jesus when it is not even mentioned in original prophecy as stated above?
2. If he was not a product of “Holy Spirit impregnating Mary” as is quite clear, well then who was his real father?

Answer 1:Well the answer to the first question is that Christianity is not the only religion that profess about Virgin birth there were many others religions who were competing with newly found Christianity, where former being fully established and much older. Virgin birth stories were fairly common in pagan myths. The following mythological characters were all believed to have been born to divinely impregnated virgins: Romulus and Remus, Perseus, Zoroaster, Mithras, Osiris-Aion, Agdistis, Attis, Tammuz, Adonis, Korybas, Dionysus. The pagan belief in unions between gods and women, regardless of whether they were virgins or not, is even more common. Many characters in pagan mythology were believed to be sons of divine fathers and human females. The Christian belief that Jesus was the son of God born to a virgin, is typical of Greco-Roman superstition. The Jewish philosopher,  Philo of Alexandria (c. 30 B.C.E - 45 C.E.), warned against the widespread superstitious belief in unions between male gods and human females which returned women to a state of virginity.
                           So in order to survive among many older and firmly established religions earlier Christians ended up claiming Virgin birth of Jesus when it is not even mentioned in Original Isaiah Book; just to garner some followers and survive and to establish its authenticity among pagan people. We know very well that under the Roman occupations Israel was a Hub of lots of religion Like Persian Mithras, Greek Hellenistic and Roman Pagan Etc.
Conclusion:- Christianity is a cult of long time now dead religions of Ancient Past.
Answer2. Big time question is now “who was Jesus’s Father”? 
In the Tosefta and the Baraitas, Yeishu's father is named Pandeira or Panteiri. The connection between Yeishu and Jesus is corroborated by the the fact that Mattai and Todah, the names of two of Yeishu's disciples, are the original Hebrew forms of Matthew and Thaddaeus, the names of two of Jesus's disciples in Christian mythology.
The early Christians were also aware of the name "ben Pandeira" for Jesus. The pagan philosopher Celsus, who was famous for his arguments against Christianity, claimed in 178 C.E. that he had heard from a Jew that Jesus's mother, Mary, had been divorced by her husband, a carpenter, after it had been proved that she was an adultress. She wandered about in shame and bore Jesus in secret. His real father was a soldier named Pantheras. According to the Christian writer Epiphanius (c. 320 - 403 C.E.), the Christian apologist Origen (c.185 – 254 C.E.) had claimed that "Panther" was the nickname for Jacob the father of Joseph, the stepfather of Jesus. It should be noted that Origen's claim is not based on any historical information. It is purely a conjecture aimed at explaining away the Pandeira story of Celsus. That story is also not historical. The claim that Jesus's real father was named Panther is based on an frustrated attempt at reconstructing the original form of Pandeira.
Furthermore, while Mary stayed a big part of Jesus’s life, Joseph is completely absent in the latter years of Jesus’s ministry. Mary even went to Jesus’s grave (Luke 24:10). But because of, what I assume the result of adultery, Joseph left her sometime after the departure to Nazareth.
Incidently  the Pandeira’s tombstone is in the Römerhalle museum in Bad Kreuznach, Germany.
 
Note: Kindly also read my article Titled “ Isaiah’s Wonderful Counsellor and Christian’s Pathetic Delimma” in my Blog.
Shalom.

2 comments:

  1. The first thing that caught my attention was this, 'Hot head,Brain.'
    I guess the author is brain dead also because he didn't put a space after the comma. The author continues being brain dead as we shall see below. 'Hot head,Brain' should read, 'Hot head, Brain'.
    Strike #1

    Strike #2, 'fraud ,rests' should read 'fraud, rests'.

    Strike #3, 'long .As' should read 'long. As'.

    Strike #4 'As you know already, no person can stand on one leg for longer time sooner or later he have to sit down'.
    What is 'longer time sooner'?

    Strike #5, 'clutcher .And' should read 'clutcher. And'.

    Strike #6, 'verse,but' should read 'verse, but'.

    As for the word 'almah', see this:
    "There is no instance where it can be proved that 'almâ designates a young woman who is not a virgin. The fact of virginity is obvious in Gen 24:43 where 'almâ is used of one who was being sought as a bride for Isaac." (R. Laird Harris, et al. Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, p. 672.)
    In the Hebrew culture a young woman who is of marriageable age was a virgin.

    As for the word Bethulah
    From: http://www.studytoanswer.net/doctrine/almah.html
    I will begin by examining the proposed substitute, bethulah. Is this word really a more proper word for describing a virgin? In the Hebrew Scriptures, bethulah appears 50 times, and its plural bethulim another 10. Out of these 60 uses, though, 14 are figuratively applied to various nations such as Israel, Babylon, Egypt, and so forth, while another 17 are non-committal concerning biological virginity (or the lack thereof), and are thus outside the concern of this article (ex. Jeremiah 51:22, "With thee also will I break in pieces man and woman; and with thee will I break in pieces old and young; and with thee will I break in pieces the young man and the maid"). When the remainder are examined more closely, it becomes apparent that the thrust of the word bethulah is not biological virginity (either explicitly or implicitly), but rather is the social context of the person(s) which this word represents. The word itself comes from a biblically unused root meaning "separation, to separate", which would be consistent with a social meaning for this word. As a young woman in an ancient Semitic society, a bethulah would indeed have been kept separated from outsiders while under the care of her father, not unlike young women in traditional Middle Eastern cultures such as the Arabs and Berbers today. While the majority of the usage of bethulah would connote a young woman who would be virginal due to the social factors involved, this is not always the case. In at least two passages (for a total of three appearances), bethulah is used in such a way as to indicate, or at least seemingly suggest, a woman who would not be a virgin according to the biological understanding of that word.

    The author shouldn't be taken serious.

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  2. Respected Sir,

    Kindly do understand, when ever a prophet speaks a Prophecy moved by the spirit of YHWH, he speaks it specifically and to the point. That’s exactly what happened in Isaiah chapter7 too. Do understand that we can’t pick a particle verse out of whole chapter by wretching havoc on the context and start applying onto somebody else out of thin air. That amounts to forgery or plagiarism.
    Overall message of the Chapter 7 is this King Ahaz is feeling threatened due to united efforts of Nothern Israel , so Isaiah is sent to calm his apprehension and says ,”Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorest shall be forsaken of both her kings. (Obviously, no such thing happened in Jesus’s childhood, is ever found or recorded )”. This passage is as clear has crystal clear water, it has no double or triple meaning, saying otherwise amounts to forgery, you know what I mean.Almah means Young Women only and that’s precisely he ment too , Proof? Lets see:

    8:3 And I went unto the prophetess; and she conceived, and bare a son. Then said the LORD to me, Call his name “Mahershalalhashbaz”. (THIS IS THE FULFILLMENT OF 7:14!)
    4 For before the child shall have knowledge to cry, My father, and my mother, the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria shall be taken away before the king of Assyria. (Repeat of verse 7:16, further proving that the birth of Isaiah's son was actually & truly the fulfillment of Is. 7:14!)
    There is no double or hidden meaning involved in this its as clear as is Quartz Crystal. The reason Christians indulge in this is due to the fact that there is no mention of virgin birth. Given the opportunity they can even claim that Prophecy has not double but triple or may be Octagonal meaning.
    What is the proof that God means double meaning? After all if their be such a thing ,surely YHWH would definitely give a clear cut indication to that , but since there is no such thing so Christians ended up claiming multiple meaning. Just like for past 2000 years they are searching real meaning of 666 mark of beast in Computer Chips, to coalition Of Nations to A devil born with that mark from the womb of Women etc

    Have A Nice Day!!

    ReplyDelete